Meditations on the Psalms 14:1

Psalm 14:1

"The fool says in his heart, 'There is no God' ... there is none who does good."

Is the final comment categorical or linked to a subset of all people? In other words, is there no human being that does good, or is there no "fool" who does good? I think the evidence seems to point in favor of the latter conclusion for two reasons.

First, David is describing the characteristics of a fool, one who denies the evidence and existence of God. To reject the fountain of all goodness, truth, and beauty is foolish and strips the man of any ability to know and do good. One may object and say that there are many atheists who live morally upright, that God is not necessary in order to live a "good" life. But one must ask the question, "Who sets the standard for determining 'goodness?'" If God is the definition of what is good, then to reject him is to sever oneself from any ability to understand goodness.

Second, David also remarks later that "God is with the generation of the righteous" (v5). Therefore, there is a group of people who have not rejected God, who are righteous. What does it mean to be righteous if not to "do good?" God has a people for himself (v7), who call upon the LORD (v4), and have made Him their refuge (v6).

However, the second verse seems to extend the bounds "foolishness" to include all people. The term "the children of man," (v2) is a technical word for all humanity (see 11:4; 12:1, 8; 33:13; 53:2), including the fool and wise, the wicked and the righteous. As God observes humanity he searches to see if any "understand" or "seek" him (another translation reads, "walk wisely"). But there is none (v3). They have all turned aside and become corrupt, forsaking the way of wisdom and the path of righteousness.

Nonetheless, there seems to remain a distinction between the evildoers and the righteous (v4,5). Perhaps the previous verses did not include God's people, but is only a description of the "fool" who rejects God? This would be my conclusion if it were not for Paul who does see this Psalm as including God's people (the Jews) when he writes in Romans 3:9-12:

"What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, as it is written:

'None is righteous, no, not one;

no one understands; no one seeks for God.

All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;

no one does good, not even one.'"

All are under sin. All have acted foolishly. All have rejected God. All have become corrupt. All have severed themselves from the fountain of all goodness, truth, and beauty. Therefore, to seek God, to walk wisely, and to call upon the LORD cannot originate from us. They are gifts of God. Let all who possess these gifts rejoice and be glad.